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Beware the list has moved to a page on its own ( List of Spanish verbs). Make your additions there. I moved the list because the main article was becoming really unwieldy. I've also moved the conjugation paradigm to Spanish verb paradigm. I'm thinking of moving the section on vowel-alternating verbs elsewhere, too. Wikipedia guidelines say an article should be no more than 32 KB and this is about 36 KB. -- Pablo D. Flores 22:38, 23 Apr 2005 (UTC)
Hey, should I add verbs that I know, even if I'm not sure if they're really simple? -Cookiemobsta 07:24, 4 Dec 2004 (UTC)
The list of simple verbs should not contain:
I'd say this excludes chingar, a vulgar Mexican word included by an anon in order to shock.
If the vulgar, dialectal, secondary meaning of coger is to be given, then something of an equivalent register is required to translate it. "To have sex" really misses the mark. "To fuck" is a tad harsh. "To shag", or similar, is just right. Chamaeleon 10:24, 9 Mar 2005 (UTC)
If anyone has any questions about Spanish verbs, put them here and I shall answer them in the article. Chamaeleon 02:19, 12 Jan 2005 (UTC)
Isn't andar an irregular verb, because in the pretérito perfecto simple it's conjugated anduve not andé? And if it is, are there other verbs like it?
It is irregular indeed, there are other verbs that have a similar conjugation, such as tener (tuve) and derivated verbs: contener, sostener, mantener... —Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.24.136.36 ( talk) 08:17, 10 December 2007 (UTC)
The ending of some verb forms for andar and tener is similar, but the conjugation is not the same. In "anduve" the stem of the infinitive ("and-") is there, in "tuve", the stem of the infinitive ("ten-") is reduced to just "t-", also, in other tenses/persons the parallelism is lost (Cfr: yo ando vs. yo tengo). I'm not sure, but it looks very likely that andar is a one of a kind irregular verb... "Wenceslao Grillo" 1:40, 26 Aug 2013 (GMT -0300)
Could you please add some explanation and commentary around transitive, pronomial, reflextive verbs and how they relate (are some a sub-type of the others?), including (for example) that sometimes the "reflexive version" of a verb actually has a different meaning to the underlying verb? (Or perhaps this is more general and that the same verb has different meaning based on context / prepositions used, etc). Maybe this is already documented somewhere, but I couldn't find it. 2A02:C7D:C5CC:DA00:7C9D:7531:18C9:91D1 ( talk) 16:31, 7 January 2018 (UTC)
This article is lacking of the near future (I'm going to go), which is prefered in South America over the Simple Future ("Esta noche voy a ir a bailar"/"Esta noche iré a bailar").
Perhaps it woud be also good to add a short comment on the preferences of use of the pasado simple (South America) and the pretérito perfecto ("Ayer fuí a bailar"/ "Ayer he ido a bailar").
Finally, the pretérito anterior continuo ("hubiera (hubiese) estado hablando") seams to me that exists, yet I haven't been able to find an example that couldn't be expressed in another splimpler form. - Mariano July 8, 2005 10:42 (UTC)
Hi, I am a native Mexican Spanish speaker; I just wanted to make a comment about the section about the future conjugation of spanish:
I am not sure about other countries, but here in Mexico, the future tense is not often used to express a future idea (like in english I will go) But to express a desire to know something like in this example:
JUAN: María, Laura quiere hablar contigo. / in English: Maria, Laura wants to talk to you
MARÍA: ¿Qué querrá? / literally, in English: what will she want? But correctly translated: What do you think she wants?
I just went further into the article and it seems my previous comment is already observed here. Sorry!
I believe the term "perfective" has been used incorrectly to describe the tenses/aspects formed with haber. See Grammatical_aspect#Confusing_terminology:_perfective_vs._perfect.
"Perfective" refers to actions viewed as a simple whole, as opposed to actions viewed as a process (imperfective) and actions with a resulting later state or condition (perfect). Hence, the only necessarily "perfective" tense in spanish is the simple preterite (pretérito indefinido).
Unless i am completely misguided, the term "Perfective" as it currently appears on the page should be replaced with "Perfect," to correctly describe the Spanish perfecto.
Someone seems bent on including a link to www.helloworld.com.es in the external links section of this article (see the history). I have been deleting it (as have others) every time I return to see it. In my opinion it is irrelevant when they just link to the homepage of a site and you have to click throught several pages to actually find the conjugator and then, lo and behold, it's a 6Mb+ download instead of an online conjugator. What do you guys think? Should the link be included? If it is to be included, at least it should link directly to the download page (www.helloworld.com.es/english/downloads/spanishvm.htm) *and* clearly state that it is a download. This also might be a case of attemted self-promotion. LinguistAtLarge 15:13, 9 March 2006 (UTC)
Looks like the user has been blocked. Hopefully that will take care of the problem. LinguistAtLarge 05:38, 14 March 2006 (UTC)
I do apologise for not linking directly to www.helloworld.com.es/english/downloads/spanishvm.htm I did not realise it would be such a big deal. These guys at www.helloworld.com.es provide this Spanish verb conjugator - Trainer for free, and I just thought your users would benefit from it. When you kept on removing the link, I just kept on adding it in, I just thought it was someone from the online conjugators removing it. Another thing Verbos is a software download as well and they require Java Runtime environment sort of like www.helloworld.com.es is a software download and requires .net framework.
I'm looking through the main page, as well as the discussion page. The Discussion seems to have gone quiet about a year ago, and the main page has regular small updates. I'm thinking to make some changes to the main page, mostly as a vehicle for me to learn. I am not an expert in linguistics (or Spanish, for that matter).
The list at the top of the Discussion page is great; it seems to have a list of topics that still need attention (I say "seems" because I haven't checked the list versus the main page yet).
The biggest problems with the page, from my reading, is its inconsistency with similar pages (such as French verbs, English verbs, and so on); and its inconsistency with supporting pages (such as Grammatical mood, Grammatical tense, and so forth). Wouldn't it be great if the link to tense used the same definition as the words on this page ...?
Because of my lack of subject-matter knowledge, I'm hoping the community can help me improve the page. I'm not sure how the page will end up looking, but I am sure that I'll learn a lot.
DanielVonEhren 00:21, 12 July 2007 (UTC)
Hi, as a native Spanish speaker, I'm afraid I can't agree with some of the contents of the article. Before making any correction, I would like to discuss here what I find to be mistakes.
As far as I know, there is no personalized, adjective form for every verb. It may sound convenient and can look similar to English, but nouns derived from verbs such as andante (from andar, walk), comedor (from comer, eat), hablador (from hablar, speak) do not mean, respectively walker, eater or speaker. I don't think it's a recognized form of any verb.
On the other hand, at least in Spain's Spanish language textbooks, we where taught a non-finite forms that is missing in the article: the compound gerund (e.g. habiendo hablado, having talked).
Another mistake is considering Conditional a mood. There are just three moods: Indicative, Subjunctive and Imperative. The conditional tense is part of the indicative.
I find a general trend in the article to assimilate Spanish verb conjugation to English verb conjugation. I personally think it's OK, as long as you don't introduce errors in order to avoid a long explanation. We can end up with a very clear but perfectly mistaken article.
For instance, in Spanish "continuous tenses" as such do not exist. It is true that you can use the auxiliary verb "estar" to form "continuous" tenses. You can also use "ir a" to form a future in exactly the same way you use "going to" in English. In Spanish this is called a "Perífrasis verbal" and there are lots of them, just as in English (for example: "used to do something" to indicate a habit). The thing is that they don't are "canonical" tenses.
I'll try to find a link to a complete and exact table of the verb tenses defined in Spanish to avoid misunderstandings. For the time being, allow me to list the tenses as taught in Spain:
-Indicative mood: Simple forms: Presente, pretérito imperfecto, pretérito indefinido, condicional simple, futuro simple. Compound forms: Pretérito perfecto, pretérito pluscuamperfecto, pretérito anterior, condicional compuesto, futuro compuesto.
-Subjunctive mood: Simple forms: Presente, pretérito imperfecto, futuro simple. Compound forms: Pretérito perfecto, pretérito pluscuamperfecto, futuro perfecto.
-Imperative mood: Presente.
By the way, it seems that there is a confusion between perfect tenses and compound tenses. In Spanish, they are called perfect because the action indicated by them is finished. The pretérito indefinido is also called pretérito perfecto simple, because it is a perfect, simple tense, and right now it is listed as non-perfect. So I would rename what the article refers as perfect tenses to compound tenses since they are conjugated by the composition of haber and the corresponding participle.
Sorry for the long exposition. -- 78.24.136.36 ( talk) 09:04, 10 December 2007 (UTC)
I would like to make some comments or suggestions for correcting this article. First of all, according to the modern Spanish grammar, condicional simple and condicional compuesto are not a mood, but two tenses in the "indicative mood". There is no such mood as "conditional" in Spanish. Secondly, there are no "continuous tenses" the way it is now in the article. The verb estar and the gerund is just a periphrasis or circumlocution (of many other) that expresses continuity, but they are not verbal tenses and never were. My suggestion is consulting a conjugation of a verb from DRAE online and using the terms and categories as they are there. Regards, -- TheMexican ( talk) 13:44, 21 December 2007 (UTC)
I made the necessary corrections, I also completed with some examples and explanations. -- TheMexican ( talk) 20:26, 21 December 2007 (UTC)
Can someone confirm the form hesties? I learned this as vosotros habéis. Foros2000 ( talk) 10:17, 22 January 2008 (UTC)
helper verb "haber" conjugated: he, has, ha, hemos, hesties, han)
Habeis:
Hi i´m spanish and the correct form is HABÉIS (HABER). —Preceding unsigned comment added by Carran ( talk • contribs) 10:12, 8 November 2009 (UTC)
As "Habemos" in this is a barbarism I proced to modificate this coment→The form habemos is common, and in certain contexts it is even acceptable in formal or literary language. [1]
Based on scans of the Davies corpus at <www.corpusdelespanol.org>, I have revised the lists of time expressions that were said to "indicate" (better: "tend to co-occur with") either the preterit or the imperfect tense. Most of the expressions were well-matched with one of the two tenses, but — based on the corpus scans — I have moved "por un rato" from the imperfect list to the preterit list because, like "por un día", "por un año", etc., it specifies a measured length of time, which is likely to focus attention on the beginning and ending of the action or state. (In the corpus there are only 7 tokens of "por un rato" adjacent before or after a preterit or imperfect, but 6 of these involve the preterit.) Other expressions I've moved to the preterit column because of their correlation in the corpus are "durante" (following the verb — 94%), "varias veces" (91%) "nunca" (73%) and "tantas veces" and "muchas veces", both weakly favoring the preterit at 62% and 61% respectively.
I have deleted "en ese momento", "siempre", and "mucho" from both lists as being too weakly correlated with their indicated verb tense (51%, 56%, and 58% respectively). "En ese momento" does focus on a moment, but that moment can just as well be within the duration of the action or state (imperfect) as at its beginning or end (preterit). I've deleted "de momento" ("for the time being, for now") as too rarely used with past tenses to be useful here.
I've added 6 expressions to the preterit list: "hoy" (80%), "luego" (83%), "[number] veces" (78%), "tan pronto como" (78%), "después que" (87%), and "desde que" (77%). To the imperfect list, I've added "todavía" (85%) and "ya" (67% with imperfect, even without counting the "había" etc. of the pluperfect). Kotabatubara ( talk) 05:54, 8 February 2011 (UTC)
I'm reverting many of the 19 June 2011 revisions by 79.154.193.209 because they replaced idiomatic English with stilted or ungrammatical forms.
Kotabatubara ( talk) 05:31, 20 June 2011 (UTC)
The table headed "Negative imperative (imperativo negativo)" shows the conjugational ending for vos without final s's: -e, -a, and -a for ar, er, and ir verbs respectively.
The table headed "Negative command forms of the verb comer" shows the conjugational ending for vos with two options for this er verb, both with a final s: "¡No comas!" or "¡No comás!"
I think the second table is probably correct. Could someone please make the appropriate corrections? Thanks. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 71.101.37.37 ( talk) 23:34, 5 May 2012 (UTC)
Will this information be added in the future? Jarble ( talk) 18:19, 27 January 2013 (UTC)
"Esta mañana comí huevos y pan tostado" doesn't sound good to me (a Spanish speaker from Spain). I would say: "Esta mañana he comido huevos y pan tostado" and: "Ayer comí huevos y pan tostado" -- 84.123.71.253 ( talk) 12:01, 5 February 2013 (UTC)
There is nothing here about how Spanish inflects it's verbs with voice. I, not being a Spanish learner or speaker, have no idea how it works. The current section just describes a very general definition for Voice, not how spanish inflects its verbs with Active or Passive Voice. Frozenfire71 ( talk) 23:33, 6 January 2017 (UTC)
"Used because the general norm in the voseo imperative is to drop the final -d and add an accent; however, if this were done, the form would be í"
What is this intended to mean? It reads like a tangle of conflations (infinitive-fixation where it doesn't apply, i.e. suppletion; prosody and orthography "add an accent"...) and maybe -- it's difficult to decipher -- invoking teleology where there is none (because... if this were done...). Can someone help to sort this out? Barefoot through the chollas ( talk) 20:40, 25 December 2019 (UTC)
I am thankful for the efforts of all those who have layed out extensive information about Spanish verbs on Wikipedia: it helps me get a better understanding and more knowledge of this language.
Having said that, in the current version of the article one finds:
Category is not defined here, but - from the lists and titles and announcement - it appears to be somehow related to accident of the verb. Their numbers, however, vary from 7, to 6, to 5, and back to 6 again. Their names too are not always the same, raising the question in the mind of a novice - I can imagine - whether or not the same things are meant. Furthermore, the five sections concerning what may be gleaned - from the terms used in the categories list [A] and the number of accidents announced [C] - to be veritable categories, are interrupted by a section on something that seems to be different than a category, namely impersonal or non-finite verb forms. And, strangely, T-V mood does not get its own section, though it seems to be very similar to an accident of the verb. Or am I wrong here?
Questions:
I am convinced the article would be more readable, particularly to a novice, if its structure would be more along the lines suggested in [Q3]. Redav ( talk) 22:11, 15 September 2020 (UTC)
User:Barefoot through the chollas suggests to use paradigm for what is traditionally called tense (group of six forms varying in person and number), so as not to confuse it with grammatical tense. Here is my answer:
@ Jotamar:, this claim needs at least one respectable source, preferably more: "In older classifications there was a fourth mood, the conditional, that included the two conditional tenses (simple and compound), but nowadays those tenses are included in the indicative mood." Even once that's done, though, it still clashes with the Wikipedia article Conditional mood, which begins "The conditional mood (abbreviated cond) is a grammatical mood...", and continues thus for Romance: "While Latin used the indicative and subjunctive in conditional sentences, most of the Romance languages developed a conditional paradigm". Barefoot through the chollas ( talk) 20:37, 24 June 2021 (UTC)
The page mentions that these two different endings exist (-ra and -se), but doesn't clearly state if there is any difference in meaning.
Are these semantically equivalent? Or is there any shift in nuance if you use one instead of the other? And how / why did these two forms both come to exist? ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │ Tala við mig 19:33, 2 January 2024 (UTC)
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![]() | Graphs are unavailable due to technical issues. There is more info on Phabricator and on MediaWiki.org. |
Beware the list has moved to a page on its own ( List of Spanish verbs). Make your additions there. I moved the list because the main article was becoming really unwieldy. I've also moved the conjugation paradigm to Spanish verb paradigm. I'm thinking of moving the section on vowel-alternating verbs elsewhere, too. Wikipedia guidelines say an article should be no more than 32 KB and this is about 36 KB. -- Pablo D. Flores 22:38, 23 Apr 2005 (UTC)
Hey, should I add verbs that I know, even if I'm not sure if they're really simple? -Cookiemobsta 07:24, 4 Dec 2004 (UTC)
The list of simple verbs should not contain:
I'd say this excludes chingar, a vulgar Mexican word included by an anon in order to shock.
If the vulgar, dialectal, secondary meaning of coger is to be given, then something of an equivalent register is required to translate it. "To have sex" really misses the mark. "To fuck" is a tad harsh. "To shag", or similar, is just right. Chamaeleon 10:24, 9 Mar 2005 (UTC)
If anyone has any questions about Spanish verbs, put them here and I shall answer them in the article. Chamaeleon 02:19, 12 Jan 2005 (UTC)
Isn't andar an irregular verb, because in the pretérito perfecto simple it's conjugated anduve not andé? And if it is, are there other verbs like it?
It is irregular indeed, there are other verbs that have a similar conjugation, such as tener (tuve) and derivated verbs: contener, sostener, mantener... —Preceding unsigned comment added by 78.24.136.36 ( talk) 08:17, 10 December 2007 (UTC)
The ending of some verb forms for andar and tener is similar, but the conjugation is not the same. In "anduve" the stem of the infinitive ("and-") is there, in "tuve", the stem of the infinitive ("ten-") is reduced to just "t-", also, in other tenses/persons the parallelism is lost (Cfr: yo ando vs. yo tengo). I'm not sure, but it looks very likely that andar is a one of a kind irregular verb... "Wenceslao Grillo" 1:40, 26 Aug 2013 (GMT -0300)
Could you please add some explanation and commentary around transitive, pronomial, reflextive verbs and how they relate (are some a sub-type of the others?), including (for example) that sometimes the "reflexive version" of a verb actually has a different meaning to the underlying verb? (Or perhaps this is more general and that the same verb has different meaning based on context / prepositions used, etc). Maybe this is already documented somewhere, but I couldn't find it. 2A02:C7D:C5CC:DA00:7C9D:7531:18C9:91D1 ( talk) 16:31, 7 January 2018 (UTC)
This article is lacking of the near future (I'm going to go), which is prefered in South America over the Simple Future ("Esta noche voy a ir a bailar"/"Esta noche iré a bailar").
Perhaps it woud be also good to add a short comment on the preferences of use of the pasado simple (South America) and the pretérito perfecto ("Ayer fuí a bailar"/ "Ayer he ido a bailar").
Finally, the pretérito anterior continuo ("hubiera (hubiese) estado hablando") seams to me that exists, yet I haven't been able to find an example that couldn't be expressed in another splimpler form. - Mariano July 8, 2005 10:42 (UTC)
Hi, I am a native Mexican Spanish speaker; I just wanted to make a comment about the section about the future conjugation of spanish:
I am not sure about other countries, but here in Mexico, the future tense is not often used to express a future idea (like in english I will go) But to express a desire to know something like in this example:
JUAN: María, Laura quiere hablar contigo. / in English: Maria, Laura wants to talk to you
MARÍA: ¿Qué querrá? / literally, in English: what will she want? But correctly translated: What do you think she wants?
I just went further into the article and it seems my previous comment is already observed here. Sorry!
I believe the term "perfective" has been used incorrectly to describe the tenses/aspects formed with haber. See Grammatical_aspect#Confusing_terminology:_perfective_vs._perfect.
"Perfective" refers to actions viewed as a simple whole, as opposed to actions viewed as a process (imperfective) and actions with a resulting later state or condition (perfect). Hence, the only necessarily "perfective" tense in spanish is the simple preterite (pretérito indefinido).
Unless i am completely misguided, the term "Perfective" as it currently appears on the page should be replaced with "Perfect," to correctly describe the Spanish perfecto.
Someone seems bent on including a link to www.helloworld.com.es in the external links section of this article (see the history). I have been deleting it (as have others) every time I return to see it. In my opinion it is irrelevant when they just link to the homepage of a site and you have to click throught several pages to actually find the conjugator and then, lo and behold, it's a 6Mb+ download instead of an online conjugator. What do you guys think? Should the link be included? If it is to be included, at least it should link directly to the download page (www.helloworld.com.es/english/downloads/spanishvm.htm) *and* clearly state that it is a download. This also might be a case of attemted self-promotion. LinguistAtLarge 15:13, 9 March 2006 (UTC)
Looks like the user has been blocked. Hopefully that will take care of the problem. LinguistAtLarge 05:38, 14 March 2006 (UTC)
I do apologise for not linking directly to www.helloworld.com.es/english/downloads/spanishvm.htm I did not realise it would be such a big deal. These guys at www.helloworld.com.es provide this Spanish verb conjugator - Trainer for free, and I just thought your users would benefit from it. When you kept on removing the link, I just kept on adding it in, I just thought it was someone from the online conjugators removing it. Another thing Verbos is a software download as well and they require Java Runtime environment sort of like www.helloworld.com.es is a software download and requires .net framework.
I'm looking through the main page, as well as the discussion page. The Discussion seems to have gone quiet about a year ago, and the main page has regular small updates. I'm thinking to make some changes to the main page, mostly as a vehicle for me to learn. I am not an expert in linguistics (or Spanish, for that matter).
The list at the top of the Discussion page is great; it seems to have a list of topics that still need attention (I say "seems" because I haven't checked the list versus the main page yet).
The biggest problems with the page, from my reading, is its inconsistency with similar pages (such as French verbs, English verbs, and so on); and its inconsistency with supporting pages (such as Grammatical mood, Grammatical tense, and so forth). Wouldn't it be great if the link to tense used the same definition as the words on this page ...?
Because of my lack of subject-matter knowledge, I'm hoping the community can help me improve the page. I'm not sure how the page will end up looking, but I am sure that I'll learn a lot.
DanielVonEhren 00:21, 12 July 2007 (UTC)
Hi, as a native Spanish speaker, I'm afraid I can't agree with some of the contents of the article. Before making any correction, I would like to discuss here what I find to be mistakes.
As far as I know, there is no personalized, adjective form for every verb. It may sound convenient and can look similar to English, but nouns derived from verbs such as andante (from andar, walk), comedor (from comer, eat), hablador (from hablar, speak) do not mean, respectively walker, eater or speaker. I don't think it's a recognized form of any verb.
On the other hand, at least in Spain's Spanish language textbooks, we where taught a non-finite forms that is missing in the article: the compound gerund (e.g. habiendo hablado, having talked).
Another mistake is considering Conditional a mood. There are just three moods: Indicative, Subjunctive and Imperative. The conditional tense is part of the indicative.
I find a general trend in the article to assimilate Spanish verb conjugation to English verb conjugation. I personally think it's OK, as long as you don't introduce errors in order to avoid a long explanation. We can end up with a very clear but perfectly mistaken article.
For instance, in Spanish "continuous tenses" as such do not exist. It is true that you can use the auxiliary verb "estar" to form "continuous" tenses. You can also use "ir a" to form a future in exactly the same way you use "going to" in English. In Spanish this is called a "Perífrasis verbal" and there are lots of them, just as in English (for example: "used to do something" to indicate a habit). The thing is that they don't are "canonical" tenses.
I'll try to find a link to a complete and exact table of the verb tenses defined in Spanish to avoid misunderstandings. For the time being, allow me to list the tenses as taught in Spain:
-Indicative mood: Simple forms: Presente, pretérito imperfecto, pretérito indefinido, condicional simple, futuro simple. Compound forms: Pretérito perfecto, pretérito pluscuamperfecto, pretérito anterior, condicional compuesto, futuro compuesto.
-Subjunctive mood: Simple forms: Presente, pretérito imperfecto, futuro simple. Compound forms: Pretérito perfecto, pretérito pluscuamperfecto, futuro perfecto.
-Imperative mood: Presente.
By the way, it seems that there is a confusion between perfect tenses and compound tenses. In Spanish, they are called perfect because the action indicated by them is finished. The pretérito indefinido is also called pretérito perfecto simple, because it is a perfect, simple tense, and right now it is listed as non-perfect. So I would rename what the article refers as perfect tenses to compound tenses since they are conjugated by the composition of haber and the corresponding participle.
Sorry for the long exposition. -- 78.24.136.36 ( talk) 09:04, 10 December 2007 (UTC)
I would like to make some comments or suggestions for correcting this article. First of all, according to the modern Spanish grammar, condicional simple and condicional compuesto are not a mood, but two tenses in the "indicative mood". There is no such mood as "conditional" in Spanish. Secondly, there are no "continuous tenses" the way it is now in the article. The verb estar and the gerund is just a periphrasis or circumlocution (of many other) that expresses continuity, but they are not verbal tenses and never were. My suggestion is consulting a conjugation of a verb from DRAE online and using the terms and categories as they are there. Regards, -- TheMexican ( talk) 13:44, 21 December 2007 (UTC)
I made the necessary corrections, I also completed with some examples and explanations. -- TheMexican ( talk) 20:26, 21 December 2007 (UTC)
Can someone confirm the form hesties? I learned this as vosotros habéis. Foros2000 ( talk) 10:17, 22 January 2008 (UTC)
helper verb "haber" conjugated: he, has, ha, hemos, hesties, han)
Habeis:
Hi i´m spanish and the correct form is HABÉIS (HABER). —Preceding unsigned comment added by Carran ( talk • contribs) 10:12, 8 November 2009 (UTC)
As "Habemos" in this is a barbarism I proced to modificate this coment→The form habemos is common, and in certain contexts it is even acceptable in formal or literary language. [1]
Based on scans of the Davies corpus at <www.corpusdelespanol.org>, I have revised the lists of time expressions that were said to "indicate" (better: "tend to co-occur with") either the preterit or the imperfect tense. Most of the expressions were well-matched with one of the two tenses, but — based on the corpus scans — I have moved "por un rato" from the imperfect list to the preterit list because, like "por un día", "por un año", etc., it specifies a measured length of time, which is likely to focus attention on the beginning and ending of the action or state. (In the corpus there are only 7 tokens of "por un rato" adjacent before or after a preterit or imperfect, but 6 of these involve the preterit.) Other expressions I've moved to the preterit column because of their correlation in the corpus are "durante" (following the verb — 94%), "varias veces" (91%) "nunca" (73%) and "tantas veces" and "muchas veces", both weakly favoring the preterit at 62% and 61% respectively.
I have deleted "en ese momento", "siempre", and "mucho" from both lists as being too weakly correlated with their indicated verb tense (51%, 56%, and 58% respectively). "En ese momento" does focus on a moment, but that moment can just as well be within the duration of the action or state (imperfect) as at its beginning or end (preterit). I've deleted "de momento" ("for the time being, for now") as too rarely used with past tenses to be useful here.
I've added 6 expressions to the preterit list: "hoy" (80%), "luego" (83%), "[number] veces" (78%), "tan pronto como" (78%), "después que" (87%), and "desde que" (77%). To the imperfect list, I've added "todavía" (85%) and "ya" (67% with imperfect, even without counting the "había" etc. of the pluperfect). Kotabatubara ( talk) 05:54, 8 February 2011 (UTC)
I'm reverting many of the 19 June 2011 revisions by 79.154.193.209 because they replaced idiomatic English with stilted or ungrammatical forms.
Kotabatubara ( talk) 05:31, 20 June 2011 (UTC)
The table headed "Negative imperative (imperativo negativo)" shows the conjugational ending for vos without final s's: -e, -a, and -a for ar, er, and ir verbs respectively.
The table headed "Negative command forms of the verb comer" shows the conjugational ending for vos with two options for this er verb, both with a final s: "¡No comas!" or "¡No comás!"
I think the second table is probably correct. Could someone please make the appropriate corrections? Thanks. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 71.101.37.37 ( talk) 23:34, 5 May 2012 (UTC)
Will this information be added in the future? Jarble ( talk) 18:19, 27 January 2013 (UTC)
"Esta mañana comí huevos y pan tostado" doesn't sound good to me (a Spanish speaker from Spain). I would say: "Esta mañana he comido huevos y pan tostado" and: "Ayer comí huevos y pan tostado" -- 84.123.71.253 ( talk) 12:01, 5 February 2013 (UTC)
There is nothing here about how Spanish inflects it's verbs with voice. I, not being a Spanish learner or speaker, have no idea how it works. The current section just describes a very general definition for Voice, not how spanish inflects its verbs with Active or Passive Voice. Frozenfire71 ( talk) 23:33, 6 January 2017 (UTC)
"Used because the general norm in the voseo imperative is to drop the final -d and add an accent; however, if this were done, the form would be í"
What is this intended to mean? It reads like a tangle of conflations (infinitive-fixation where it doesn't apply, i.e. suppletion; prosody and orthography "add an accent"...) and maybe -- it's difficult to decipher -- invoking teleology where there is none (because... if this were done...). Can someone help to sort this out? Barefoot through the chollas ( talk) 20:40, 25 December 2019 (UTC)
I am thankful for the efforts of all those who have layed out extensive information about Spanish verbs on Wikipedia: it helps me get a better understanding and more knowledge of this language.
Having said that, in the current version of the article one finds:
Category is not defined here, but - from the lists and titles and announcement - it appears to be somehow related to accident of the verb. Their numbers, however, vary from 7, to 6, to 5, and back to 6 again. Their names too are not always the same, raising the question in the mind of a novice - I can imagine - whether or not the same things are meant. Furthermore, the five sections concerning what may be gleaned - from the terms used in the categories list [A] and the number of accidents announced [C] - to be veritable categories, are interrupted by a section on something that seems to be different than a category, namely impersonal or non-finite verb forms. And, strangely, T-V mood does not get its own section, though it seems to be very similar to an accident of the verb. Or am I wrong here?
Questions:
I am convinced the article would be more readable, particularly to a novice, if its structure would be more along the lines suggested in [Q3]. Redav ( talk) 22:11, 15 September 2020 (UTC)
User:Barefoot through the chollas suggests to use paradigm for what is traditionally called tense (group of six forms varying in person and number), so as not to confuse it with grammatical tense. Here is my answer:
@ Jotamar:, this claim needs at least one respectable source, preferably more: "In older classifications there was a fourth mood, the conditional, that included the two conditional tenses (simple and compound), but nowadays those tenses are included in the indicative mood." Even once that's done, though, it still clashes with the Wikipedia article Conditional mood, which begins "The conditional mood (abbreviated cond) is a grammatical mood...", and continues thus for Romance: "While Latin used the indicative and subjunctive in conditional sentences, most of the Romance languages developed a conditional paradigm". Barefoot through the chollas ( talk) 20:37, 24 June 2021 (UTC)
The page mentions that these two different endings exist (-ra and -se), but doesn't clearly state if there is any difference in meaning.
Are these semantically equivalent? Or is there any shift in nuance if you use one instead of the other? And how / why did these two forms both come to exist? ‑‑ Eiríkr Útlendi │ Tala við mig 19:33, 2 January 2024 (UTC)