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I'm puzzled by the title of the article. That Dictionary is capitalized suggests it's the title of the book, rather than a description of it. But has it appeared in English translation? I doubt it. Indeed, it's almost unimaginable. If that's so, the English title is newly invented; why choose this for the article title?
In "Vocabvlario da Lingoa de Iapam" within the article, the old v-form graph of the grapheme "u" seems to have been taken as the grapheme "v". I tentatively suggest "Vocabulario da Lingoa de Iapam" as the title of the book and of the article about it. (Tentatively, because offhand I don't know about the "I"/"J" distinction in Portuguese of that time, or indeed about diacritics, etc.) -- Hoary 11:07, 2005 Jun 10 (UTC)
Considering the dictionary was published under the Portuguese title, it doesn't make sense to move it to the Japanese name. If it was going to be moved anywhere, the Portuguese name was the obvious candidate. -- DannyWilde 23:09, 12 October 2005 (UTC)
We should use the original spelling. I guess the book has xi instead of shi and the like.
Since the whole issue of spelling was so complicated, I decided to add more examples which clearly distinguished the difference between the jisho's spelling and modern romanization. that both systems are used togethor, and you know which is from the jisho and which is modern. That way I think readers get the idea of how the differences in spelling may have actually reflected differences in pronunciation, without making any hard claims that we can't immediately back up. Jb05-rsh 19:42, 15 December 2005 (UTC)
We read: "...the pronunciations nihon (which would have been pronounced nifon)...."
Unfortunately I know next to nothing about the past pronunciation of Japanese. I do know something of how it's pronounced now. If I didn't even know that, and were a monoglot anglophone, I'd infer that this was the labiodental [f] (as in English). But since I do know a little bit more, I guess it's bilabial [Φ] instead. Well, I dunno -- what is it? For explaining pronunciation, I suggest IPA (with explanations where appropriate) rather than ghastly modified (extended, etc.) Hepburn. -- Hoary 10:16, 13 October 2005 (UTC)
Does "shimo" mean "Kyushu"? I'd be surprised, but willing to believe it given appropriate references. I always thought that "kami" meant "Kyoto" (or in a broader sense "Kansai") and "shimo" meant the rest of the country, including not only Kyushu but also Kanto, Hokuriku, Chugoku, Shikoku and so forth. If I'm wrong about this, I'd like to know more. Fg2 07:59, 5 July 2006 (UTC)
I presume the original copies of the book had been printed (on a European printing press), not written. Which probably means they didn't contain any Kanji or Kana, only Romanizations (unless the Jesuits had equipment+time+skill to make their own types, which I doubt). Is that assumption correct? If so, it deserves being mentioned in the article. Catskineater ( talk) 18:31, 3 May 2010 (UTC)
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I'm puzzled by the title of the article. That Dictionary is capitalized suggests it's the title of the book, rather than a description of it. But has it appeared in English translation? I doubt it. Indeed, it's almost unimaginable. If that's so, the English title is newly invented; why choose this for the article title?
In "Vocabvlario da Lingoa de Iapam" within the article, the old v-form graph of the grapheme "u" seems to have been taken as the grapheme "v". I tentatively suggest "Vocabulario da Lingoa de Iapam" as the title of the book and of the article about it. (Tentatively, because offhand I don't know about the "I"/"J" distinction in Portuguese of that time, or indeed about diacritics, etc.) -- Hoary 11:07, 2005 Jun 10 (UTC)
Considering the dictionary was published under the Portuguese title, it doesn't make sense to move it to the Japanese name. If it was going to be moved anywhere, the Portuguese name was the obvious candidate. -- DannyWilde 23:09, 12 October 2005 (UTC)
We should use the original spelling. I guess the book has xi instead of shi and the like.
Since the whole issue of spelling was so complicated, I decided to add more examples which clearly distinguished the difference between the jisho's spelling and modern romanization. that both systems are used togethor, and you know which is from the jisho and which is modern. That way I think readers get the idea of how the differences in spelling may have actually reflected differences in pronunciation, without making any hard claims that we can't immediately back up. Jb05-rsh 19:42, 15 December 2005 (UTC)
We read: "...the pronunciations nihon (which would have been pronounced nifon)...."
Unfortunately I know next to nothing about the past pronunciation of Japanese. I do know something of how it's pronounced now. If I didn't even know that, and were a monoglot anglophone, I'd infer that this was the labiodental [f] (as in English). But since I do know a little bit more, I guess it's bilabial [Φ] instead. Well, I dunno -- what is it? For explaining pronunciation, I suggest IPA (with explanations where appropriate) rather than ghastly modified (extended, etc.) Hepburn. -- Hoary 10:16, 13 October 2005 (UTC)
Does "shimo" mean "Kyushu"? I'd be surprised, but willing to believe it given appropriate references. I always thought that "kami" meant "Kyoto" (or in a broader sense "Kansai") and "shimo" meant the rest of the country, including not only Kyushu but also Kanto, Hokuriku, Chugoku, Shikoku and so forth. If I'm wrong about this, I'd like to know more. Fg2 07:59, 5 July 2006 (UTC)
I presume the original copies of the book had been printed (on a European printing press), not written. Which probably means they didn't contain any Kanji or Kana, only Romanizations (unless the Jesuits had equipment+time+skill to make their own types, which I doubt). Is that assumption correct? If so, it deserves being mentioned in the article. Catskineater ( talk) 18:31, 3 May 2010 (UTC)