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The following is part of an original German text:-
"Wenn nun auch im Fall beliebig geformter Elektroden die (in Wirklichkeit vorhandenen) Anfangsgeschwindigkeiten sicher u. U. eine bedeutend größere Rolle spielen, aus bei symmetrischen Elektroden, so ist doch demnach der Langmuirsche Satz in der angegebenen Form rich ig."
Which I think translates as something like:
"Now, if in the case of arbitrarily shaped electrodes (of practical use) the initial velocities ???? play a significantly greater role than in the case of symmetrical electrodes, Langmuir's claim in the given form is therefore yet compelling ."
This translation doesn't actually make much sense in the context. It makes more sense (at least to me) if the word "initial" is replaced by the word "peripheral".
What does the abbreviation "u. U." mean?
What is the correct transliteration of the words "rich" in the original German, noting that the German for "Form rich" (wealthy) is "Bilden reich"? 120.145.161.132 ( talk) 09:54, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
I see four instances of 'vide' in this document. http://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/communications/circular/order-under-section-119-for-return-26-09-2014.pdf what does it mean? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 16:18, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
What has an imperative verb got to do in those four instances? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 16:39, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
Doesn't the use of the word mangle the grammar in those sentences? The word means 'see'. Can you replace those 'vide's with see and still make sense? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 17:02, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
That would be grammatical as long as it is an imperative sentence with no main clause attached to it. What about the full sentence from the document? "*See* Notification No. 33/2014 dated 25th July, 2014, the forms for filing tax audit report have been revised." OR "The High Court of Bombay disposed of writ petition No.2492 of 2014 *see* order dated 25.09.2014 and directed the Board to look into the practical difficulties of the petitioners and take a just and proper decision in this matter." — Preceding unsigned comment added by 14.139.185.2 ( talk) 09:57, 1 October 2015 (UTC)
Is there a word for the following behaviour: "Yesterday I had lunch with a senior vice president of a large company, and he said that the local economy is..." "I talked with a close friend of mine, who is a Director of Medicine at a major hospital, and he said that the common cold normally lasts...". Appealing to famous people without naming them. -- Pxos ( talk) 18:23, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
In one Andy Capp strip, Andy Capp and his wife Flo are returning home from a darts competition. Andy says to Flo: "I said 'Play as you've never played before', not 'Play as if you've never played before'." Now I understand the strip's meaning and all that, but I still have to wonder about the details of English grammar. What, exactly, is the exact grammatical difference? Don't bother explaining the strip to me. I already understand it. I'm interested in the exact grammatical details. JIP | Talk 21:03, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
When I was at the World Bodypainting Festival this July, I heard someone speaking in German and mentioning ÖBB, the national railways of Austria, as /Ø: be: be:/, with the sound of "Ö" as /Ø/, not as "O umlaut". Nevertheless, unlike my native Finnish, where the letter "Ö" is utterly separate and not interchangeable with the letter "O", I have understood that in German, it's not so much a separate letter than an inflected form of the letter "O". So do German native speakers pronounce the letter as /Ø/ or as "O umlaut"? JIP | Talk 21:55, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
Language desk | ||
---|---|---|
< September 28 | << Aug | September | Oct >> | September 30 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Language Reference Desk Archives |
---|
The page you are currently viewing is an archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
The following is part of an original German text:-
"Wenn nun auch im Fall beliebig geformter Elektroden die (in Wirklichkeit vorhandenen) Anfangsgeschwindigkeiten sicher u. U. eine bedeutend größere Rolle spielen, aus bei symmetrischen Elektroden, so ist doch demnach der Langmuirsche Satz in der angegebenen Form rich ig."
Which I think translates as something like:
"Now, if in the case of arbitrarily shaped electrodes (of practical use) the initial velocities ???? play a significantly greater role than in the case of symmetrical electrodes, Langmuir's claim in the given form is therefore yet compelling ."
This translation doesn't actually make much sense in the context. It makes more sense (at least to me) if the word "initial" is replaced by the word "peripheral".
What does the abbreviation "u. U." mean?
What is the correct transliteration of the words "rich" in the original German, noting that the German for "Form rich" (wealthy) is "Bilden reich"? 120.145.161.132 ( talk) 09:54, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
I see four instances of 'vide' in this document. http://www.incometaxindia.gov.in/communications/circular/order-under-section-119-for-return-26-09-2014.pdf what does it mean? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 16:18, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
What has an imperative verb got to do in those four instances? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 16:39, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
Doesn't the use of the word mangle the grammar in those sentences? The word means 'see'. Can you replace those 'vide's with see and still make sense? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 117.253.196.32 ( talk) 17:02, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
That would be grammatical as long as it is an imperative sentence with no main clause attached to it. What about the full sentence from the document? "*See* Notification No. 33/2014 dated 25th July, 2014, the forms for filing tax audit report have been revised." OR "The High Court of Bombay disposed of writ petition No.2492 of 2014 *see* order dated 25.09.2014 and directed the Board to look into the practical difficulties of the petitioners and take a just and proper decision in this matter." — Preceding unsigned comment added by 14.139.185.2 ( talk) 09:57, 1 October 2015 (UTC)
Is there a word for the following behaviour: "Yesterday I had lunch with a senior vice president of a large company, and he said that the local economy is..." "I talked with a close friend of mine, who is a Director of Medicine at a major hospital, and he said that the common cold normally lasts...". Appealing to famous people without naming them. -- Pxos ( talk) 18:23, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
In one Andy Capp strip, Andy Capp and his wife Flo are returning home from a darts competition. Andy says to Flo: "I said 'Play as you've never played before', not 'Play as if you've never played before'." Now I understand the strip's meaning and all that, but I still have to wonder about the details of English grammar. What, exactly, is the exact grammatical difference? Don't bother explaining the strip to me. I already understand it. I'm interested in the exact grammatical details. JIP | Talk 21:03, 29 September 2015 (UTC)
When I was at the World Bodypainting Festival this July, I heard someone speaking in German and mentioning ÖBB, the national railways of Austria, as /Ø: be: be:/, with the sound of "Ö" as /Ø/, not as "O umlaut". Nevertheless, unlike my native Finnish, where the letter "Ö" is utterly separate and not interchangeable with the letter "O", I have understood that in German, it's not so much a separate letter than an inflected form of the letter "O". So do German native speakers pronounce the letter as /Ø/ or as "O umlaut"? JIP | Talk 21:55, 29 September 2015 (UTC)