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I'm wondering if these terms have precise meanings.
The aircraft "ditched" on the icecap.
The aircraft ran out of fuel and was "forced to land" on the icecap.
The aircraft "crashlanded" on the icecap.
My sense is that "crashlanded" means came to the ground not under the control of the pilot, that "was forced to land" means the pilot controlled the landing. "Ditched" I associate with water.
Am I correct that the three terms mean different things?
Other question: should one say "the aircraft ditched" or "the aircraft was ditched"?
Thanks, Wanderer57 ( talk) 02:16, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
Bonjour! Quick question: Yesterday I volunteered for our local Bastille Day celebration, selling various France-themed merchandise, and some of our customers spoke French (yes, there are French people even in Tennessee, I was surprised too). I wanted to say "Your coffee will be [ready in] a moment", and I said "Il faut un moment pour le café". Was this correctly idiomatic French? OR Is there a better way to say it? thnx — Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 03:51, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
Makes sense to me. μηδείς ( talk) 15:08, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
OK, thanks (Merci;)) One more quick q: To say "Next!" (think the line at the DMV and the window person calling loudly for the next person), I said "Le prochain, s'il vous plait!". The volunteer next to me used "Ensuite!", which I understood as "Then!", unless it is an idiomatic usage? What would be the correct way to say this, preserving the concision of the English "Next!" which "Le prochain client, s'il vous plait!", while unquestionably correct, does not? merci de nouveau ;] — Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 21:07, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
I'm looking for a term for 'folk psychology' - the way we all form opinions about others mental states, about how others minds work etc - as opposed to psychology as a scientific discipline. We all do it, all the time, and there is a tendency to just call it 'psychology'. In most contexts this is fine, and you can tell what is meant from the context . In the particular case I'm interested in, I need a word for 'folk psychology' which makes it clear that I don't mean the scientific discipline. Does anyone have any suggestions? AndyTheGrump ( talk) 19:09, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
--- Headology 86.148.163.239 ( talk) 20:46, 16 July 2011 (UTC) what about pop psychology? 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 21:13, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
For an article I am writing, I need a translation from French of parts of this book. My basic French is sufficient for most parts, but I got stuck with the following sentence and would appreciate help with translation: Le 8* mois de la 12* année (74O), Hirotsugu ayant fait de faux rapports sur plusieurs affaires importantes , Makibi et Genbō représentèrent au Daïri qu'il devait s'attendre à une révolte, s'il ne renvoyait pas Hirotsugu. (from page 70 of the book). "Daïri" is the Emperor. bamse ( talk) 22:53, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
What's the deal with hyphenation of French double-barrelled given names? I know there was a decree from on high (the Académie, I suppose) at some stage, but I don't know how widely that was adopted. I still often see a mish-mash. Jean Sylvain Bailly is a case in point. It's Jean Sylvain in the title and the infobox, but Jean-Sylvain the lede and some (but not all) of the sources. Even the French article has both styles, so that's not much help. Is there a general rule that all such names should now be following, or does it depend on the case, and how would one ever know if the sources can't even agree? Merci. -- Jack of Oz [your turn] 22:56, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
I'm transferring a section of a book to HTML. I always try to be correct with Unicode characters (accented characters, ligatures, em dashes, etc.), so this word I'm encountering is vexing me. It's the Hebrew word for prophet, "nabi", and I've put a scan of how it's printed here.
So I have a few issues with this. Is that "a" just a standard "a" with an acute accent ("á")? The angle seems different than how I usually see it printed, but that might just be due to the typeface. As for the "i"... that looks like an "i" with a circumflex ("î") except for that odd accent in the upper right. Is there a unique character in Unicode that represents this, or would I have to combine two or three characters to make it? I'm assuming that's not just an apostrophe, it's an accent of some sort.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!— Chowbok ☠ 23:17, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
The transliteration is, in fact, pretty normal and the accented vowels do have a clear meaning - the author is transliterating Tiberian Hebrew, which is really what philologists normally do, when not specifically treating modern Jews and modern Israel (Wikipedia is weird in using modern Hebrew transliterations in the leads of articles concerning Biblical characters etc.). The diacritic over the a must definitely be a macron (the similarity to an acute is most likely to be due to some technical defect) and designates the length of the vowel (well, actually, the rounded quality of the vowel in Tiberian times). The diacritic over the i is a circumflex and designates the length/quality of the vowel and the fact that the vowel is marked with a separate consonantal letter Yodh in the Hebrew script ( Biblical Hebrew orthography). The final apostrophe-like letter is, as others have said, aleph and is normally transcribed as something similar to an apostrophe, although it's true that some use the IPA glottal stop sign and some use the half-ring. The apostrophe-like sign is OK in the wiki article Proto-Semitic language, for example. The only thing missing is that the b should have been underlined to show that it is transformed into a fricative and does not retain its original stop quality (in terms of Hebrew orthography, it doesn't have a dagesh) - perhaps the author was aiming at a pre-Tiberian pronunciation, preceding the fricativization. All in all, I'd render the transcription as nābîʼ. What this means technically for HTML purposes, I don't know.-- 91.148.159.4 ( talk) 12:39, 19 July 2011 (UTC)
Language desk | ||
---|---|---|
< July 15 | << Jun | July | Aug >> | July 17 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Language Reference Desk Archives |
---|
The page you are currently viewing is an archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
I'm wondering if these terms have precise meanings.
The aircraft "ditched" on the icecap.
The aircraft ran out of fuel and was "forced to land" on the icecap.
The aircraft "crashlanded" on the icecap.
My sense is that "crashlanded" means came to the ground not under the control of the pilot, that "was forced to land" means the pilot controlled the landing. "Ditched" I associate with water.
Am I correct that the three terms mean different things?
Other question: should one say "the aircraft ditched" or "the aircraft was ditched"?
Thanks, Wanderer57 ( talk) 02:16, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
Bonjour! Quick question: Yesterday I volunteered for our local Bastille Day celebration, selling various France-themed merchandise, and some of our customers spoke French (yes, there are French people even in Tennessee, I was surprised too). I wanted to say "Your coffee will be [ready in] a moment", and I said "Il faut un moment pour le café". Was this correctly idiomatic French? OR Is there a better way to say it? thnx — Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 03:51, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
Makes sense to me. μηδείς ( talk) 15:08, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
OK, thanks (Merci;)) One more quick q: To say "Next!" (think the line at the DMV and the window person calling loudly for the next person), I said "Le prochain, s'il vous plait!". The volunteer next to me used "Ensuite!", which I understood as "Then!", unless it is an idiomatic usage? What would be the correct way to say this, preserving the concision of the English "Next!" which "Le prochain client, s'il vous plait!", while unquestionably correct, does not? merci de nouveau ;] — Preceding unsigned comment added by 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 21:07, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
I'm looking for a term for 'folk psychology' - the way we all form opinions about others mental states, about how others minds work etc - as opposed to psychology as a scientific discipline. We all do it, all the time, and there is a tendency to just call it 'psychology'. In most contexts this is fine, and you can tell what is meant from the context . In the particular case I'm interested in, I need a word for 'folk psychology' which makes it clear that I don't mean the scientific discipline. Does anyone have any suggestions? AndyTheGrump ( talk) 19:09, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
--- Headology 86.148.163.239 ( talk) 20:46, 16 July 2011 (UTC) what about pop psychology? 24.92.88.206 ( talk) 21:13, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
For an article I am writing, I need a translation from French of parts of this book. My basic French is sufficient for most parts, but I got stuck with the following sentence and would appreciate help with translation: Le 8* mois de la 12* année (74O), Hirotsugu ayant fait de faux rapports sur plusieurs affaires importantes , Makibi et Genbō représentèrent au Daïri qu'il devait s'attendre à une révolte, s'il ne renvoyait pas Hirotsugu. (from page 70 of the book). "Daïri" is the Emperor. bamse ( talk) 22:53, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
What's the deal with hyphenation of French double-barrelled given names? I know there was a decree from on high (the Académie, I suppose) at some stage, but I don't know how widely that was adopted. I still often see a mish-mash. Jean Sylvain Bailly is a case in point. It's Jean Sylvain in the title and the infobox, but Jean-Sylvain the lede and some (but not all) of the sources. Even the French article has both styles, so that's not much help. Is there a general rule that all such names should now be following, or does it depend on the case, and how would one ever know if the sources can't even agree? Merci. -- Jack of Oz [your turn] 22:56, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
I'm transferring a section of a book to HTML. I always try to be correct with Unicode characters (accented characters, ligatures, em dashes, etc.), so this word I'm encountering is vexing me. It's the Hebrew word for prophet, "nabi", and I've put a scan of how it's printed here.
So I have a few issues with this. Is that "a" just a standard "a" with an acute accent ("á")? The angle seems different than how I usually see it printed, but that might just be due to the typeface. As for the "i"... that looks like an "i" with a circumflex ("î") except for that odd accent in the upper right. Is there a unique character in Unicode that represents this, or would I have to combine two or three characters to make it? I'm assuming that's not just an apostrophe, it's an accent of some sort.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!— Chowbok ☠ 23:17, 16 July 2011 (UTC)
The transliteration is, in fact, pretty normal and the accented vowels do have a clear meaning - the author is transliterating Tiberian Hebrew, which is really what philologists normally do, when not specifically treating modern Jews and modern Israel (Wikipedia is weird in using modern Hebrew transliterations in the leads of articles concerning Biblical characters etc.). The diacritic over the a must definitely be a macron (the similarity to an acute is most likely to be due to some technical defect) and designates the length of the vowel (well, actually, the rounded quality of the vowel in Tiberian times). The diacritic over the i is a circumflex and designates the length/quality of the vowel and the fact that the vowel is marked with a separate consonantal letter Yodh in the Hebrew script ( Biblical Hebrew orthography). The final apostrophe-like letter is, as others have said, aleph and is normally transcribed as something similar to an apostrophe, although it's true that some use the IPA glottal stop sign and some use the half-ring. The apostrophe-like sign is OK in the wiki article Proto-Semitic language, for example. The only thing missing is that the b should have been underlined to show that it is transformed into a fricative and does not retain its original stop quality (in terms of Hebrew orthography, it doesn't have a dagesh) - perhaps the author was aiming at a pre-Tiberian pronunciation, preceding the fricativization. All in all, I'd render the transcription as nābîʼ. What this means technically for HTML purposes, I don't know.-- 91.148.159.4 ( talk) 12:39, 19 July 2011 (UTC)