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I know that the subjunctive tense in Spanish is used for hopes, desires, doubts, emotions, but am confused about the use in two particular examples:
To me, they both seem definitive. Am I missing some usage? Grsz 11 04:57, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
WHY HAS THE FOOTBALL TEAM CELTIC AND THE GROUP OF PEOPLE CELTS AS IN CELTIC'S HAVE THE SAME SPELL BUT ARE PRONOUNCED DIFFERENTLY
YVONNE —Preceding unsigned comment added by 95.145.232.133 ( talk) 05:11, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
The Boston Celtics also use the 's' sound. 67.51.38.51 ( talk) 16:33, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
I think I'm right in saying that there is no "soft C" in any of the Celtic Languages. Alansplodge ( talk) 17:27, 16 January 2010 (UTC)
THANKS TO ALL WHO ANSWERED MY QUESTIONS ON WHY CELTIC AND CELTIC ARE SPELT THE SAME BUT PRONOUNCED DIFFERENTLY THANKS AGAIN —Preceding unsigned comment added by 95.145.235.214 ( talk) 14:22, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
http://news.bbc.co.uk/today/hi/today/newsid_8451000/8451264.stm At about 24 seconds in, how would that persons name be spelt? The other name mentioned, at about 2.21, sounds as though it would be spelt Roy Baumaster to me. Thanks. 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 14:43, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Thanks. The other guy appears to be Roy Baumeister. 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 15:52, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Are they both correct, or is one to be preferred to the other? 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 14:44, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Leaped, leapt, lept. But not sleeped or steept or stept. —— Shakescene ( talk) 20:59, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Consider this pair of sentences:
There, 'more' can be converted to its normal opposite 'less', and vice-versa, without breaching idiom. That's because 'more' and 'less' are being used to create the comparative of the adverb 'widely' (or possibly of the adjective 'widely(-)known'; let's not quibble).
But compare:
We don't use the word 'worse' in this situation, but 'less'. And if we started out with 'less', it would not become 'more', but 'better'. In my idiolect, anyway.
Are there other cases where the standard opposite (good/bad, better/worse, more/less ...) simply does not work and we have to know what the idiomatic expression is? -- Jack of Oz ... speak! ... 20:55, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
is a Perlocutionary act (or p. effect?) identical with the intended effect or with the actual effect of the utterance? A perlocutionary act (or perlocutionary effect) is a speech act, as viewed at the level of its psychological consequences in Perlocutionary act seems to mean actual effect. However, I seem to remember that someone important (Searle?) meant rather intended effect. What is the common use? -- 92.225.74.11 ( talk) 22:56, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Language desk | ||
---|---|---|
< January 14 | << Dec | January | Feb >> | January 16 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Language Reference Desk Archives |
---|
The page you are currently viewing is an archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
I know that the subjunctive tense in Spanish is used for hopes, desires, doubts, emotions, but am confused about the use in two particular examples:
To me, they both seem definitive. Am I missing some usage? Grsz 11 04:57, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
WHY HAS THE FOOTBALL TEAM CELTIC AND THE GROUP OF PEOPLE CELTS AS IN CELTIC'S HAVE THE SAME SPELL BUT ARE PRONOUNCED DIFFERENTLY
YVONNE —Preceding unsigned comment added by 95.145.232.133 ( talk) 05:11, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
The Boston Celtics also use the 's' sound. 67.51.38.51 ( talk) 16:33, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
I think I'm right in saying that there is no "soft C" in any of the Celtic Languages. Alansplodge ( talk) 17:27, 16 January 2010 (UTC)
THANKS TO ALL WHO ANSWERED MY QUESTIONS ON WHY CELTIC AND CELTIC ARE SPELT THE SAME BUT PRONOUNCED DIFFERENTLY THANKS AGAIN —Preceding unsigned comment added by 95.145.235.214 ( talk) 14:22, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
http://news.bbc.co.uk/today/hi/today/newsid_8451000/8451264.stm At about 24 seconds in, how would that persons name be spelt? The other name mentioned, at about 2.21, sounds as though it would be spelt Roy Baumaster to me. Thanks. 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 14:43, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Thanks. The other guy appears to be Roy Baumeister. 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 15:52, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Are they both correct, or is one to be preferred to the other? 78.147.233.120 ( talk) 14:44, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Leaped, leapt, lept. But not sleeped or steept or stept. —— Shakescene ( talk) 20:59, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
Consider this pair of sentences:
There, 'more' can be converted to its normal opposite 'less', and vice-versa, without breaching idiom. That's because 'more' and 'less' are being used to create the comparative of the adverb 'widely' (or possibly of the adjective 'widely(-)known'; let's not quibble).
But compare:
We don't use the word 'worse' in this situation, but 'less'. And if we started out with 'less', it would not become 'more', but 'better'. In my idiolect, anyway.
Are there other cases where the standard opposite (good/bad, better/worse, more/less ...) simply does not work and we have to know what the idiomatic expression is? -- Jack of Oz ... speak! ... 20:55, 15 January 2010 (UTC)
is a Perlocutionary act (or p. effect?) identical with the intended effect or with the actual effect of the utterance? A perlocutionary act (or perlocutionary effect) is a speech act, as viewed at the level of its psychological consequences in Perlocutionary act seems to mean actual effect. However, I seem to remember that someone important (Searle?) meant rather intended effect. What is the common use? -- 92.225.74.11 ( talk) 22:56, 15 January 2010 (UTC)