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I've noticed that in several works, specifically by Poe though others may have done similar, he uses incomplete names and even years. An example is The Purloined Letter [1] which took place in "the year 18__" and involves a "Monsieur G-" and a "Minister D-". I had originally thought that maybe the translation from handwritten to typewritten could not decipher some of Poe's handwriting, but having seen some original manuscripts, they are in fact written out like that. I've even seen (somewhere, can't recall offhand), that some story's events took place "in the year ____". Anyone have a backstory to this sort of thing? Thanks! Arakunem Talk
This is a hypothetical case and is therefore not, I repeat NOT, a request for legal advice. Suppose you see a driver about to strike a pedestrian. You heroically push the would-be victim to safety, but in the process break your [supply body part here]. Assume this happens in North America. Is the driver liable for your medical bills? Does it make a difference if the injury was due to the car hitting you or you hitting the ground? Clarityfiend ( talk) 01:50, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Presuming the common-law mostly applies (which to my understanding is the case across most of the US) the main question a court would have to ask is "did the driver breach the duty of care they owed to other road users when neglecting to see you and your friend". In most jurisdictions drivers have a duty to take reasonable care to avoid colliding with other road users. So if the court found that, in the circumstances a reasonable person would've done something different (that is kept a better lookout, not sped, not been drunk etc) then the driver breached their duty of care.
Then they must ask whether that breach of duty caused the accident. So if your freind stepped out of nowhere and a driver taking proper care still would've hit them, then it cannot be held that the driver's negligence caused the accident. On the other hand if a reasonable driver could've been expected to avoid the accident then the court would hold that the driver's negligence did cause the accident.
This is of course a simplification and there are many other factors that could come into play. Also, in many jurisdictions drivers have compulsory third-party insurance which covers the costs of personal injury done by drivers to others in all circumstances (regardless of fault). ~~ —Preceding unsigned comment added by 122.108.198.12 ( talk) 09:51, 27 July 2008 (UTC)
Do you mean are they liable criminally (eg. could they be fined by the police?) or in civil law (eg. could you claim damages?)? They would both be completely different things, of course.
Transferred malice might be important, but I don't know if you have it in the USA and Canada. If it is relevant, then the driver couldn't defend himself by saying: "I was reckless towards the first pedestrian who was saved. When I was reckless, the other person was actually on the sidewalk, so I'm not guilty." That wouldn't matter, the point is the driver was reckless and injured, even though the injured was not the one he was reckless towards.
If it were English law, the short answer is they probably would be criminally liable. Jordan and Smith are two cases that come to mind about a victim being an "intervening factor" in causation, but I'm afraid I can't remember the ratio decidendi in each. 84.13.99.85 ( talk) 13:48, 27 July 2008 (UTC)
The lives of saints who were being persecuted because of the faith 203.177.57.170 ( talk) 03:21, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Has anything well-known or well-reviewed been written about what can make a person important in the long term, and about whether one can have a meaningful life without being important? Secular, deistic or agnostic material would be preferred over anything that presumes -- or attempts to impose -- a religion. Neon Merlin 04:30, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I'm trying to recall where I read of characters comparing their "favorite" Virgin Mary, I think as a humorous response to the diverse characterizations of the figure in various Marian cults before the Reformation. I believe one character says something to the effect of, Our Lady of [?] is well-known, but the Mary of [?] is the kindest. Or something to that effect. Can anyone help me? Cannongrandee ( talk) 05:13, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
When reading articles on Rudolf Steiner and on Anthroposophy and Theosophy I keep coming up with Gegel, surname only. A Google search and a Wikipedia search come up with nothing on this individual. Please tell me who he was. There is no Wikipedia article on him Dr Ron Howe ( talk) 05:47, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Is reproducing a Wikipedia Page on knol.google.com a copyright violation? I ask because I recently came across this. Thanks -- MagneticFlux ( talk) 07:16, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Is lottery a monopoly of the government? I mean, is it legal (in most places) to start a lottery business on my own? -- Taraborn ( talk) 11:00, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I need some Internet forums about economics, the larger, the better. Google didn't help much... Do you know any? Thanks. -- Taraborn ( talk) 17:50, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I was looking at a list of ancient/ medieval peoples, and all of the really old ones (3rd or 4th millenium BC) seemed to be from around the Middle East (eg. Akkadians, Amorites etc.). I asked a question some time back, about how we identify various historic peoples as a distinct group, and received the answer that we follow the designations of people like the Greeks living at the same time, whose writings we rely on as sources. So I'm wondering if the prevalence of so many very old cultures from the Middle East on the historical record has something to do with the Egyptians leaving records behind, and if so, do we use the names they gave them? thanks in advance, 203.221.127.38 ( talk) 18:01, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Thanks for that answer. Can I ask further, does that mean we are using the names for various peoples that the Sumerians and Egyptians gave them? Like, did they invent the terms "Amorites" and "Akkadians" etc? 202.89.166.179 ( talk) 11:50, 28 July 2008 (UTC)
The one worn by most infantry on the Union side. ScienceApe ( talk) 19:09, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
the forerunner of the forage hat was the shako.-- Tresckow ( talk) 15:51, 28 July 2008 (UTC)
Were there any jungle battles that took place during the gunpowder warfare era? ScienceApe ( talk) 19:41, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Humanities desk | ||
---|---|---|
< July 25 | << Jun | July | Aug >> | July 27 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Humanities Reference Desk Archives |
---|
The page you are currently viewing is an archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
I've noticed that in several works, specifically by Poe though others may have done similar, he uses incomplete names and even years. An example is The Purloined Letter [1] which took place in "the year 18__" and involves a "Monsieur G-" and a "Minister D-". I had originally thought that maybe the translation from handwritten to typewritten could not decipher some of Poe's handwriting, but having seen some original manuscripts, they are in fact written out like that. I've even seen (somewhere, can't recall offhand), that some story's events took place "in the year ____". Anyone have a backstory to this sort of thing? Thanks! Arakunem Talk
This is a hypothetical case and is therefore not, I repeat NOT, a request for legal advice. Suppose you see a driver about to strike a pedestrian. You heroically push the would-be victim to safety, but in the process break your [supply body part here]. Assume this happens in North America. Is the driver liable for your medical bills? Does it make a difference if the injury was due to the car hitting you or you hitting the ground? Clarityfiend ( talk) 01:50, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Presuming the common-law mostly applies (which to my understanding is the case across most of the US) the main question a court would have to ask is "did the driver breach the duty of care they owed to other road users when neglecting to see you and your friend". In most jurisdictions drivers have a duty to take reasonable care to avoid colliding with other road users. So if the court found that, in the circumstances a reasonable person would've done something different (that is kept a better lookout, not sped, not been drunk etc) then the driver breached their duty of care.
Then they must ask whether that breach of duty caused the accident. So if your freind stepped out of nowhere and a driver taking proper care still would've hit them, then it cannot be held that the driver's negligence caused the accident. On the other hand if a reasonable driver could've been expected to avoid the accident then the court would hold that the driver's negligence did cause the accident.
This is of course a simplification and there are many other factors that could come into play. Also, in many jurisdictions drivers have compulsory third-party insurance which covers the costs of personal injury done by drivers to others in all circumstances (regardless of fault). ~~ —Preceding unsigned comment added by 122.108.198.12 ( talk) 09:51, 27 July 2008 (UTC)
Do you mean are they liable criminally (eg. could they be fined by the police?) or in civil law (eg. could you claim damages?)? They would both be completely different things, of course.
Transferred malice might be important, but I don't know if you have it in the USA and Canada. If it is relevant, then the driver couldn't defend himself by saying: "I was reckless towards the first pedestrian who was saved. When I was reckless, the other person was actually on the sidewalk, so I'm not guilty." That wouldn't matter, the point is the driver was reckless and injured, even though the injured was not the one he was reckless towards.
If it were English law, the short answer is they probably would be criminally liable. Jordan and Smith are two cases that come to mind about a victim being an "intervening factor" in causation, but I'm afraid I can't remember the ratio decidendi in each. 84.13.99.85 ( talk) 13:48, 27 July 2008 (UTC)
The lives of saints who were being persecuted because of the faith 203.177.57.170 ( talk) 03:21, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Has anything well-known or well-reviewed been written about what can make a person important in the long term, and about whether one can have a meaningful life without being important? Secular, deistic or agnostic material would be preferred over anything that presumes -- or attempts to impose -- a religion. Neon Merlin 04:30, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I'm trying to recall where I read of characters comparing their "favorite" Virgin Mary, I think as a humorous response to the diverse characterizations of the figure in various Marian cults before the Reformation. I believe one character says something to the effect of, Our Lady of [?] is well-known, but the Mary of [?] is the kindest. Or something to that effect. Can anyone help me? Cannongrandee ( talk) 05:13, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
When reading articles on Rudolf Steiner and on Anthroposophy and Theosophy I keep coming up with Gegel, surname only. A Google search and a Wikipedia search come up with nothing on this individual. Please tell me who he was. There is no Wikipedia article on him Dr Ron Howe ( talk) 05:47, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Is reproducing a Wikipedia Page on knol.google.com a copyright violation? I ask because I recently came across this. Thanks -- MagneticFlux ( talk) 07:16, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Is lottery a monopoly of the government? I mean, is it legal (in most places) to start a lottery business on my own? -- Taraborn ( talk) 11:00, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I need some Internet forums about economics, the larger, the better. Google didn't help much... Do you know any? Thanks. -- Taraborn ( talk) 17:50, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
I was looking at a list of ancient/ medieval peoples, and all of the really old ones (3rd or 4th millenium BC) seemed to be from around the Middle East (eg. Akkadians, Amorites etc.). I asked a question some time back, about how we identify various historic peoples as a distinct group, and received the answer that we follow the designations of people like the Greeks living at the same time, whose writings we rely on as sources. So I'm wondering if the prevalence of so many very old cultures from the Middle East on the historical record has something to do with the Egyptians leaving records behind, and if so, do we use the names they gave them? thanks in advance, 203.221.127.38 ( talk) 18:01, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
Thanks for that answer. Can I ask further, does that mean we are using the names for various peoples that the Sumerians and Egyptians gave them? Like, did they invent the terms "Amorites" and "Akkadians" etc? 202.89.166.179 ( talk) 11:50, 28 July 2008 (UTC)
The one worn by most infantry on the Union side. ScienceApe ( talk) 19:09, 26 July 2008 (UTC)
the forerunner of the forage hat was the shako.-- Tresckow ( talk) 15:51, 28 July 2008 (UTC)
Were there any jungle battles that took place during the gunpowder warfare era? ScienceApe ( talk) 19:41, 26 July 2008 (UTC)