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I've been under the impression that there was also a type of Sephardi Hebrew used in everyday speech.
see also: talk pages on Ashkenazi Hebrew language and Mizrahi Hebrew language
Gringo300 10:43, 8 October 2005 (UTC)
I've added the need for a reference in the section "Variants", because the following statements are either contradictory or puzzling:
Who is going to mistake someone for a Sephardim because he pronounces ב as [b] or [β]? You can mistake him for someone who has modern Spanish as his mother tongue but not for a Sephardim (the vast majority of Sephardim Jews are Jews of Moroccan, Greek, Turkish, Balkan and Jerusalem and their descendants) for the simple reason that most Sephardim pronounce ב as [v].
3.- Spanish and Portuguese Jews traditionally pronounced it as [b] (as do most Mizrahi Jews), though this is declining under the influence of Israeli Hebrew.
If by Spanish and Portuguese Jews it is meant Sephardim, then it contradicts with what has been said above (most Sephardim pronunce [ב] as [v]).
If it is meant Jews who live in Spain and Portugal, I can understand that modern-day Spanish Jews might not distinguish between [b] and [v], because of the influence of modern Spanish. But why would Portuguese Jews fail to make the distinction? Standard Portuguese (like most other European languages and Ladino) does distinguish between [b] and [v]. Insert non-formatted text here
![]() | This article is rated C-class on Wikipedia's
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I've been under the impression that there was also a type of Sephardi Hebrew used in everyday speech.
see also: talk pages on Ashkenazi Hebrew language and Mizrahi Hebrew language
Gringo300 10:43, 8 October 2005 (UTC)
I've added the need for a reference in the section "Variants", because the following statements are either contradictory or puzzling:
Who is going to mistake someone for a Sephardim because he pronounces ב as [b] or [β]? You can mistake him for someone who has modern Spanish as his mother tongue but not for a Sephardim (the vast majority of Sephardim Jews are Jews of Moroccan, Greek, Turkish, Balkan and Jerusalem and their descendants) for the simple reason that most Sephardim pronounce ב as [v].
3.- Spanish and Portuguese Jews traditionally pronounced it as [b] (as do most Mizrahi Jews), though this is declining under the influence of Israeli Hebrew.
If by Spanish and Portuguese Jews it is meant Sephardim, then it contradicts with what has been said above (most Sephardim pronunce [ב] as [v]).
If it is meant Jews who live in Spain and Portugal, I can understand that modern-day Spanish Jews might not distinguish between [b] and [v], because of the influence of modern Spanish. But why would Portuguese Jews fail to make the distinction? Standard Portuguese (like most other European languages and Ladino) does distinguish between [b] and [v]. Insert non-formatted text here