Welcome to the Wikipedia Mathematics Reference Desk Archives
The page you are currently viewing is a
transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the
current reference desk pages.
But I don't understand why given that they have different domains (the sigma field and the real numbers respectively), and also why is ! How does the integral on the probability space turn into an integral on the real line? Is it by first considering the pushforward measure, observing the expectations for X and the identity will be equal and then by Radon-Nikodym theorem applied for the pushforward measure and the Lebesgue measure? Which book will contain a detailed proof
Abdul Muhsy (
talk)
00:46, 11 February 2021 (UTC)reply
It is nothing deep. The event space can be taken to be the
Borel -algebra; then its distribution is a measure on (see
Borel set § Example). Given a probability distribution the -measure of an interval is where the endpoints may be
infinite. For an event represented as a set of disjoint intervals, We can also go the other way: which shows that as far as probability distributions on are concerned, there is a one-to-one correspondence between distributions and probability functions. The lower-case variable corresponds to a possible outcome of . If it is all (notationally) a bit confusing, this is because the theory was originally developed independently (and not always in the most general way) for discrete events and for real-valued random variables, and the concept of probability space was developed afterwards to create a uniform framework capable of capturing these and more. --
Lambiam10:39, 11 February 2021 (UTC)reply
Welcome to the Wikipedia Mathematics Reference Desk Archives
The page you are currently viewing is a
transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the
current reference desk pages.
But I don't understand why given that they have different domains (the sigma field and the real numbers respectively), and also why is ! How does the integral on the probability space turn into an integral on the real line? Is it by first considering the pushforward measure, observing the expectations for X and the identity will be equal and then by Radon-Nikodym theorem applied for the pushforward measure and the Lebesgue measure? Which book will contain a detailed proof
Abdul Muhsy (
talk)
00:46, 11 February 2021 (UTC)reply
It is nothing deep. The event space can be taken to be the
Borel -algebra; then its distribution is a measure on (see
Borel set § Example). Given a probability distribution the -measure of an interval is where the endpoints may be
infinite. For an event represented as a set of disjoint intervals, We can also go the other way: which shows that as far as probability distributions on are concerned, there is a one-to-one correspondence between distributions and probability functions. The lower-case variable corresponds to a possible outcome of . If it is all (notationally) a bit confusing, this is because the theory was originally developed independently (and not always in the most general way) for discrete events and for real-valued random variables, and the concept of probability space was developed afterwards to create a uniform framework capable of capturing these and more. --
Lambiam10:39, 11 February 2021 (UTC)reply