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Hello,
I was reading about Lie groups, and came across the claim that the smoothness of the inverse map can be derived from the smoothness of the multiplication map. I've been thinking about this for a while but haven't gotten anywhere. Does a quick proof of this exist, or does it take a lot of machinery?
Neuroxic ( talk) 11:31, 4 June 2015 (UTC)
Mathematics desk | ||
---|---|---|
< June 3 | << May | June | Jul >> | June 5 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Mathematics Reference Desk Archives |
---|
The page you are currently viewing is a transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
Hello,
I was reading about Lie groups, and came across the claim that the smoothness of the inverse map can be derived from the smoothness of the multiplication map. I've been thinking about this for a while but haven't gotten anywhere. Does a quick proof of this exist, or does it take a lot of machinery?
Neuroxic ( talk) 11:31, 4 June 2015 (UTC)