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Please translate into Cantonese. Thanks. If anyone wonders, I heard this phrase in a movie. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 59.189.61.79 ( talk) 02:21, 29 December 2006 (UTC).
In the Fourteenth Century I understand that the words "Iesus" and "Jesus" were used interchangable. Is this correct? Would that be considered a time period (1350 +/-) for the transition of the letter "I" to the usage of the letter "J" instead for this word? Would this then be for Latin usage at this time period? In this time period would the word "Iesus" have been more common place than with the "J"? I understand by the 17th Century then the letter "J" was MUCH more distinguished. I am thinking in the middle of the Fourteenth Century that the letter "I" would have been more commonplace; is that correct? Could also the word "god" been Old English (Fourteenth Century) for "good"; as in good morals. Was this word of "god" in common usage then meaning what we would refer to today as just plain "good". Perhaps over time the second "o" got added? -- Doug 17:53, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
Thanks for the correction of Middle English. Looking at those sites I can NOW see the difference. Also this has put MUCH more light on the letters of "I" and that of "J" and when "J" came into play. As you can see above, I was a little suspicious that the letter "J" started its usage in the Fourteenth Century. This is made much more clear in sub-article "The J in Jehovah" of Tetragrammaton. I am not a religious person and know nothing of church history. You have filled in many gaps. Interesting what you say of the meaning of the word "Jesus" being "I am" or "He that causes to be". The one that causes to be sounds like something similiar to (or related to) the word "concept" or the word "idea". An "idea" is he that causes to be. This is like a general notion, conception, something that is brought about. I am just looking at this as similarities; from the viewpoint of a non religious person. I just happen to see similarities. He that cuase to be is "one that causes to be" and to me is the definition of IDEA or that of a concept; which is similar to "I am the one who is." An "Idea" is one who is a concept or an innovation (basically same thing). I know that from a "religious" viewpoint this would be incorrect. But like I say, I am NOT a "religious" person. How I see this then would be completely DIFFERENT than from any religious viewpoint. So I guess what I am saying is that perhaps I do not view this as a historical person of some 2000 years ago. Just as a concept or "idea" which is something certainly different that from a "religious" viewpoint. Thanks again for your help. You have certainly given me some EXCELLENT clues and "ideas".... -- Doug 21:21, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
There's an extensive answer to this same question on Humanities reference desk... AnonMoos 01:18, 1 January 2006 (UTC)
I notice under Biblical names the meaning is "Jehovah is salvation; deliverer; help" and Jehovah is "self-subsisting". This then puts the first part of the definition (meaning) as "self-subsisting is salvation". Could I get a further explanation on this. Also is there a further explanation for the definition of "deliverer; help" as part of the word ('Iesus') origination. Is there a further definition in an ancient language of these words of "Jehovah" and "Jesus", perhaps even in one of the Semitic languages or in an ancient Persian language? -- Doug 18:05, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
Was the Greek language not considered a possible language for the United States shortly after its Independence? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 24.79.135.164 ( talk) 22:10, 29 December 2006 (UTC).
I've heard of this too - I think it may be from a Trivial Pursuit card. The question goes something like "which nation considered English, German, French, and Greek [not sure about French] as official languages upon independence," with the US as the answer. I realize that even Trivial Pursuit isn't infalliable, but surely they can't have simply drawn this out of thin air...? - Elmer Clark 08:38, 31 December 2006 (UTC)
Language desk | ||
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< December 28 | << Nov | December | Jan >> | December 30 > |
Welcome to the Wikipedia Language Reference Desk Archives |
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The page you are currently viewing is a transcluded archive page. While you can leave answers for any questions shown below, please ask new questions on one of the current reference desk pages. |
Please translate into Cantonese. Thanks. If anyone wonders, I heard this phrase in a movie. —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 59.189.61.79 ( talk) 02:21, 29 December 2006 (UTC).
In the Fourteenth Century I understand that the words "Iesus" and "Jesus" were used interchangable. Is this correct? Would that be considered a time period (1350 +/-) for the transition of the letter "I" to the usage of the letter "J" instead for this word? Would this then be for Latin usage at this time period? In this time period would the word "Iesus" have been more common place than with the "J"? I understand by the 17th Century then the letter "J" was MUCH more distinguished. I am thinking in the middle of the Fourteenth Century that the letter "I" would have been more commonplace; is that correct? Could also the word "god" been Old English (Fourteenth Century) for "good"; as in good morals. Was this word of "god" in common usage then meaning what we would refer to today as just plain "good". Perhaps over time the second "o" got added? -- Doug 17:53, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
Thanks for the correction of Middle English. Looking at those sites I can NOW see the difference. Also this has put MUCH more light on the letters of "I" and that of "J" and when "J" came into play. As you can see above, I was a little suspicious that the letter "J" started its usage in the Fourteenth Century. This is made much more clear in sub-article "The J in Jehovah" of Tetragrammaton. I am not a religious person and know nothing of church history. You have filled in many gaps. Interesting what you say of the meaning of the word "Jesus" being "I am" or "He that causes to be". The one that causes to be sounds like something similiar to (or related to) the word "concept" or the word "idea". An "idea" is he that causes to be. This is like a general notion, conception, something that is brought about. I am just looking at this as similarities; from the viewpoint of a non religious person. I just happen to see similarities. He that cuase to be is "one that causes to be" and to me is the definition of IDEA or that of a concept; which is similar to "I am the one who is." An "Idea" is one who is a concept or an innovation (basically same thing). I know that from a "religious" viewpoint this would be incorrect. But like I say, I am NOT a "religious" person. How I see this then would be completely DIFFERENT than from any religious viewpoint. So I guess what I am saying is that perhaps I do not view this as a historical person of some 2000 years ago. Just as a concept or "idea" which is something certainly different that from a "religious" viewpoint. Thanks again for your help. You have certainly given me some EXCELLENT clues and "ideas".... -- Doug 21:21, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
There's an extensive answer to this same question on Humanities reference desk... AnonMoos 01:18, 1 January 2006 (UTC)
I notice under Biblical names the meaning is "Jehovah is salvation; deliverer; help" and Jehovah is "self-subsisting". This then puts the first part of the definition (meaning) as "self-subsisting is salvation". Could I get a further explanation on this. Also is there a further explanation for the definition of "deliverer; help" as part of the word ('Iesus') origination. Is there a further definition in an ancient language of these words of "Jehovah" and "Jesus", perhaps even in one of the Semitic languages or in an ancient Persian language? -- Doug 18:05, 29 December 2006 (UTC)
Was the Greek language not considered a possible language for the United States shortly after its Independence? —The preceding unsigned comment was added by 24.79.135.164 ( talk) 22:10, 29 December 2006 (UTC).
I've heard of this too - I think it may be from a Trivial Pursuit card. The question goes something like "which nation considered English, German, French, and Greek [not sure about French] as official languages upon independence," with the US as the answer. I realize that even Trivial Pursuit isn't infalliable, but surely they can't have simply drawn this out of thin air...? - Elmer Clark 08:38, 31 December 2006 (UTC)