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Goal average was not a factor in the 1958 World Cup. Teams would have played play-offs and if that resulted in a draw, they would have drawn lots. Jooler 09:47, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

No. France were placed first because they won 2 games, whereas Yugoslavia won one and drew 2. Jooler 09:58, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

Actually I'm talking rubbish. More in a minute. Jooler

I need to recheck my sources. I added the stuff about goal-average being used in determing 1st/2nd place etc. I got the info from a contemporary report in The Times, but if I remember rightly it was all a bit confusing, because even FIFA hadn't decided exactly how it was going to work out until the tournament was already underway and they issued several contradictory press releases. I may have speculated about some of the information. I need to recheck exactly what it says, and I'll post on the talk page. In any case goal difference should definitely not be in there. Jooler 10:06, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

see Talk:1958 FIFA World Cup Jooler 11:13, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

Uniformity for it's own sake? When the underlying conditions were different makes no sense, or as much sense as counting each win as 3 points instead of two. Jooler 15:04, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

Yes I'm sure about it being "goal average" - read the quotes from The Times on the '58 WC talk page for example. I remember when it change fro the English league in the mid-70s. Jooler 15:40, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

Yes - see 1964-65 in English football for example. Jooler 16:08, 11 July 2006 (UTC) reply

You mean you want to move an article? Use the move option at the top of the page. Jooler 14:48, 13 July 2006 (UTC) reply

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