A fact from Oculus Sacerdotis appeared on Wikipedia's
Main Page in the Did you know column on 7 September 2009 (
check views). The text of the entry was as follows:
Did you know... that William of Pagula's book Oculus Sacerdotis, intended to be a manual for parish priests, was written in such a way that many of the priests couldn't read it?
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It seems a bit strange to me to say that a book written in the early 14th century was used "until the late Middle Ages". The 14th century is already pretty far into the "late" Middle Ages itself. How much later is late?
Fut.Perf.☼ 22:34, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
No idea, the source just gives "late middle ages". "over two hundred years later" is given separately.
Ironholds (
talk) 22:36, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
Then I'd just stick with "two hundred years later", or, based on that, "up to the early 16th century". The phrase "up to the late Middle Ages", besides being ill-defined, also seems to imply a significantly longer than average life span of the book, but 200 years is hardly very long for a work of that age.
Fut.Perf.☼ 22:43, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
A fact from Oculus Sacerdotis appeared on Wikipedia's
Main Page in the Did you know column on 7 September 2009 (
check views). The text of the entry was as follows:
Did you know... that William of Pagula's book Oculus Sacerdotis, intended to be a manual for parish priests, was written in such a way that many of the priests couldn't read it?
This article is within the scope of WikiProject Christianity, a collaborative effort to improve the coverage of
Christianity on Wikipedia. If you would like to participate, please visit the project page, where you can join
the discussion and see a list of open tasks.ChristianityWikipedia:WikiProject ChristianityTemplate:WikiProject ChristianityChristianity articles
It seems a bit strange to me to say that a book written in the early 14th century was used "until the late Middle Ages". The 14th century is already pretty far into the "late" Middle Ages itself. How much later is late?
Fut.Perf.☼ 22:34, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
No idea, the source just gives "late middle ages". "over two hundred years later" is given separately.
Ironholds (
talk) 22:36, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
Then I'd just stick with "two hundred years later", or, based on that, "up to the early 16th century". The phrase "up to the late Middle Ages", besides being ill-defined, also seems to imply a significantly longer than average life span of the book, but 200 years is hardly very long for a work of that age.
Fut.Perf.☼ 22:43, 1 September 2009 (UTC)reply
