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The OED online edition reads: 4. a. In Cricket, Baseball, and similar games (in Great Britain always in pl. form innings, whether in sing. or pl. sense): That portion of the game played by either side while `in' or at the bat: cf. IN adv. 6d. In Cricket also used of the play of, or score of runs made by, any one batsman during his turn. to follow their innings (said of one side at cricket) = to follow on: see FOLLOW v. 19d. It is therefore quite incorrect to accuse OED of not having the singular word "inning" (it also has 3 other meanings of much greater antiquity) and I have removed this remark - please don't reinstate it. seglea 05:08, 10 Feb 2004 (UTC)
You are quite right, Seglea (or at least to the best of my knowledge you are). Innings is universal, except in the US. (And , presumably, other places that speak in US english). As for the dictionaries, as I remember,
Tannin 06:45, 11 Feb 2004 (UTC)
(England had the better of the first innings, outscoring Australia by 104)
Ordinarily, the whole British/American english debate doesn't really bother me. But this idea of using "innings" as a singular noun sounds like nails on a chalkboard. Brrr. Meelar 02:33, 4 May 2004 (UTC)
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Isn't it more accurate to describe it as cricket-versus-baseball than as British-versus-American? Michael Hardy 02:03, 7 Feb 2005 (UTC)
I've just tidied this up quite a bit to remove the "offense/defense" terminology from the introductory discussion of what team is batting and what is fielding, since those terms don't apply in the same way for cricket. What I've done should now read correctly for both sports. I've also NPOVed the British/American plural usage - it was rather slanted towards British, IMO. (oops, forgot to sign) Dmmaus about 30 May.
First the article states "each side has two innings." but then the example says "Sri Lanka made 464 in the third innings (of the game)". Perhaps this is correct for one of the variations of cricket but I believe in the essential incomprehensibility of "cricket" and don't want to wade through all the articles. Should this example be changed? Rmhermen 16:21, 24 August 2006 (UTC)
In fact, I think it's a good illustration of the difference between the cricket and baseball definitions of the word, since in baseball these would be considered "half-innings", and therefore a valuable example. - dmmaus 22:53, 24 August 2006 (UTC)
Article states: "An inning, or innings, is a fixed-length segment of a game" If innings last as long as there are still batsmen, then the length can vary. It is not a "fixed" length —Preceding unsigned comment added by 192.100.124.219 ( talk) 14:47, 7 May 2009 (UTC)
An inning in Baseball is one thing, and an innings in cricket something else. Both can (and should) be explained fully in each or those articles. It's not like "bat" where the word is the same and has many different uses. There is no need for this as a separate article. Another-sailor ( talk) 15:04, 27 February 2011 (UTC)
The information in this section is false. The term is immemorial and the earliest known record of it is dated 1730, as has been the case for a long time. I will rewrite it in due course. Jack | talk page 11:02, 21 January 2016 (UTC)
![]() | This article is rated Start-class on Wikipedia's
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The OED online edition reads: 4. a. In Cricket, Baseball, and similar games (in Great Britain always in pl. form innings, whether in sing. or pl. sense): That portion of the game played by either side while `in' or at the bat: cf. IN adv. 6d. In Cricket also used of the play of, or score of runs made by, any one batsman during his turn. to follow their innings (said of one side at cricket) = to follow on: see FOLLOW v. 19d. It is therefore quite incorrect to accuse OED of not having the singular word "inning" (it also has 3 other meanings of much greater antiquity) and I have removed this remark - please don't reinstate it. seglea 05:08, 10 Feb 2004 (UTC)
You are quite right, Seglea (or at least to the best of my knowledge you are). Innings is universal, except in the US. (And , presumably, other places that speak in US english). As for the dictionaries, as I remember,
Tannin 06:45, 11 Feb 2004 (UTC)
(England had the better of the first innings, outscoring Australia by 104)
Ordinarily, the whole British/American english debate doesn't really bother me. But this idea of using "innings" as a singular noun sounds like nails on a chalkboard. Brrr. Meelar 02:33, 4 May 2004 (UTC)
--
Isn't it more accurate to describe it as cricket-versus-baseball than as British-versus-American? Michael Hardy 02:03, 7 Feb 2005 (UTC)
I've just tidied this up quite a bit to remove the "offense/defense" terminology from the introductory discussion of what team is batting and what is fielding, since those terms don't apply in the same way for cricket. What I've done should now read correctly for both sports. I've also NPOVed the British/American plural usage - it was rather slanted towards British, IMO. (oops, forgot to sign) Dmmaus about 30 May.
First the article states "each side has two innings." but then the example says "Sri Lanka made 464 in the third innings (of the game)". Perhaps this is correct for one of the variations of cricket but I believe in the essential incomprehensibility of "cricket" and don't want to wade through all the articles. Should this example be changed? Rmhermen 16:21, 24 August 2006 (UTC)
In fact, I think it's a good illustration of the difference between the cricket and baseball definitions of the word, since in baseball these would be considered "half-innings", and therefore a valuable example. - dmmaus 22:53, 24 August 2006 (UTC)
Article states: "An inning, or innings, is a fixed-length segment of a game" If innings last as long as there are still batsmen, then the length can vary. It is not a "fixed" length —Preceding unsigned comment added by 192.100.124.219 ( talk) 14:47, 7 May 2009 (UTC)
An inning in Baseball is one thing, and an innings in cricket something else. Both can (and should) be explained fully in each or those articles. It's not like "bat" where the word is the same and has many different uses. There is no need for this as a separate article. Another-sailor ( talk) 15:04, 27 February 2011 (UTC)
The information in this section is false. The term is immemorial and the earliest known record of it is dated 1730, as has been the case for a long time. I will rewrite it in due course. Jack | talk page 11:02, 21 January 2016 (UTC)