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![]() | This article is written in British English, which has its own spelling conventions (colour, travelled, centre, defence, artefact, analyse) and some terms that are used in it may be different or absent from other varieties of English. According to the relevant style guide, this should not be changed without broad consensus. |
Splendid job!-- Wetman ( talk) 19:52, 8 January 2009 (UTC)
I'm certainly no expert on this, but some information on how the disease was controlled (aside from the superstitious remedies) might be helpful. 207.238.52.162 ( talk) 20:59, 20 August 2009 (UTC)
I'm deleting the "persecution of Jews to name a couple" from the introduction. As the article later points out, persecution of Jews did not happen because it was impossible; the Jews were expelled from England over fifty years before the Black Death arrived in England. Mentioning it so early in the article, without the explanation, seems unnecessary and misleading. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Throwawaygull ( talk • contribs) 01:38, 10 October 2013 (UTC)
A vigorous discussion is currently under way at Talk:Beak doctor costume about the historical use of the phrase 'beak doctor', and whether said costume was worn before the seventeenth century. I've not been able to find any reliable sources which show that the costume was worn before 1619, and therefore thought I'd ask here if anyone knew of any. Any other contributions, either to the discussion or the article, would be welcome.-- Doug Coldwell talk 11:04, 23 June 2011 (UTC)
On the article, I see that the Medical Practice heading is in bold. Is there a reason why this is the case? I was going to remove that but I wasn't sure if it was in bold because it's something of importance for the article or something. -- BrydoF1989 ( talk) 19:50, 18 March 2013 (UTC)
Ziegler source Although there are several footnotes attributed to Ziegler, there is no source citation that gives more than his last name. It would be helpful if the full citation were listed in the first use. I'm assuming that it's a book written in 1969, but I can't be certain - and that information is what I gleaned from GoodReads. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 50.132.197.149 ( talk) 02:37, 19 January 2014 (UTC)
The Guardian says: "Evidence from skulls in east London shows plague had to have been airborne to spread so quickly"
Under Consequences, the present article states: "Among the most immediate consequences of the Black Death in England was a shortage of farm labour, and a corresponding rise in wages." This source https://ideas.repec.org/p/pra/mprapa/15748.html refers to this wage rise as a myth. And if there were fewer people to work weren't there also fewer people eating and wanting other goods and services? Possibly the answer lies in the section Social distribution, and that the people tending to survive were ones who tended to consume more, but if so, I think this should be made explicit and referenced.
I have just come across a separate WP article Consequences of the Black Death which states "Wages of labourers were high, but the rise in nominal wages following the Black Death was swamped by post-Plague inflation, so that real wages fell." (with a reference to what seems to be the same source I have given above, but with a different URL https://ideas.repec.org/p/tor/tecipa/munro-04-04.html ) and this may be the answer, but I do not want to change the present article without further investigation. (I will probably cross-link to that other article though.) FrankSier ( talk) 16:36, 7 October 2018 (UTC)
![]() | Black Death in England received a peer review by Wikipedia editors, which is now archived. It may contain ideas you can use to improve this article. |
![]() | This article is rated B-class on Wikipedia's
content assessment scale. It is of interest to the following WikiProjects: | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
|
![]() | This article is written in British English, which has its own spelling conventions (colour, travelled, centre, defence, artefact, analyse) and some terms that are used in it may be different or absent from other varieties of English. According to the relevant style guide, this should not be changed without broad consensus. |
Splendid job!-- Wetman ( talk) 19:52, 8 January 2009 (UTC)
I'm certainly no expert on this, but some information on how the disease was controlled (aside from the superstitious remedies) might be helpful. 207.238.52.162 ( talk) 20:59, 20 August 2009 (UTC)
I'm deleting the "persecution of Jews to name a couple" from the introduction. As the article later points out, persecution of Jews did not happen because it was impossible; the Jews were expelled from England over fifty years before the Black Death arrived in England. Mentioning it so early in the article, without the explanation, seems unnecessary and misleading. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Throwawaygull ( talk • contribs) 01:38, 10 October 2013 (UTC)
A vigorous discussion is currently under way at Talk:Beak doctor costume about the historical use of the phrase 'beak doctor', and whether said costume was worn before the seventeenth century. I've not been able to find any reliable sources which show that the costume was worn before 1619, and therefore thought I'd ask here if anyone knew of any. Any other contributions, either to the discussion or the article, would be welcome.-- Doug Coldwell talk 11:04, 23 June 2011 (UTC)
On the article, I see that the Medical Practice heading is in bold. Is there a reason why this is the case? I was going to remove that but I wasn't sure if it was in bold because it's something of importance for the article or something. -- BrydoF1989 ( talk) 19:50, 18 March 2013 (UTC)
Ziegler source Although there are several footnotes attributed to Ziegler, there is no source citation that gives more than his last name. It would be helpful if the full citation were listed in the first use. I'm assuming that it's a book written in 1969, but I can't be certain - and that information is what I gleaned from GoodReads. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 50.132.197.149 ( talk) 02:37, 19 January 2014 (UTC)
The Guardian says: "Evidence from skulls in east London shows plague had to have been airborne to spread so quickly"
Under Consequences, the present article states: "Among the most immediate consequences of the Black Death in England was a shortage of farm labour, and a corresponding rise in wages." This source https://ideas.repec.org/p/pra/mprapa/15748.html refers to this wage rise as a myth. And if there were fewer people to work weren't there also fewer people eating and wanting other goods and services? Possibly the answer lies in the section Social distribution, and that the people tending to survive were ones who tended to consume more, but if so, I think this should be made explicit and referenced.
I have just come across a separate WP article Consequences of the Black Death which states "Wages of labourers were high, but the rise in nominal wages following the Black Death was swamped by post-Plague inflation, so that real wages fell." (with a reference to what seems to be the same source I have given above, but with a different URL https://ideas.repec.org/p/tor/tecipa/munro-04-04.html ) and this may be the answer, but I do not want to change the present article without further investigation. (I will probably cross-link to that other article though.) FrankSier ( talk) 16:36, 7 October 2018 (UTC)